Where is the word " bible " mentioned in the holy bible or the word “christians”
If God loves us as His children, why Go to an extent of giving His only begotten son as a sacrifice ???
. He could have just written off the wrongs instead of punishing Himself.
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Sledgehammer I thought you were saved haya ni mahali gani?
i do not mean what i say up there. just wanted your opinion on that not a crucifixion
[SIZE=3]Act_11:26 And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that a whole year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught much people. And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch.[/SIZE]
[SIZE=3]Act_26:28 Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian.
1Pe_4:16 Yet if any man suffer as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God on this behalf.[/SIZE]
That answers question 2.
The word Bible is a collection of books. So the Bible is referred to as such. It should be referred to as teh Written Word of God.
As for sacrifice, [SIZE=3]“Joh_15:13 Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.”[/SIZE] It was either that or we are all condemned.
Next??
Get a KJV 1611 Cambridge Press version and read it
my doubt be cleared now
No biblical scholar worth his salt can touch that bogus text with a ten foot poll… that’s why we have the NKJV.
Where is the expression ‘Bible’ or ‘Written Word of God’ mentioned in the Holy Bible better still cite it in KJV 1611?
:D:D clearly you know very little and much less than that. and i don’t give a crap about “biblical scholars”. they’ve led many of you astray.
if i remember, i think you’re the one who joined in some other thread i was in last time with much nothing…
anyway, the word Bible isn’t mentioned anywhere.
The last paragraph is enough you pompous ignoramus. N.B. The KJV 1611 was compiled by biblical scholars and commissioned by James I of England/James VI of Scotland who was also a scholar. No wonder you are lost.
are you here to spew words? you’re a fool! just look at how you contradict yourself.
and do not pretend to teach me about the KJV 1611. I know it’s history and from whence it came. and also that of your nkjv.
eat your supper and go to sleep. the world will be a much better place when you’re docile.
Fuck you. If you have the facts make them apparent instead of being a dick about it.
do respond with a little decorum my maits
God and his only begotten Son are one and the same.
Just a thought gentlemen, what if the bible is a GPS to our mental quagmire.
God, Jesus & Lucifer are naught but the Super ego, Ego & Id respectively.
That’s what depth psychologists like Jung and Freud would rather have it. However…, apropos to the matter at hand the ‘Bible’ is ‘Scripture’ and it is as such that it features in the New Testament. The expression ‘Bible’ is not mentioned per se but the ‘Scriptures’ are mentioned.
In Lk 24.27 it says, 'beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he interpreted to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself. Then again in Mt 5.7 'Do not think that I have come to do away with the Law and the Prophets. I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. N.B. ‘Moses and the Prophets’, ‘The Law and Prophets refer to the first two parts or sections of the Hebrew Bible (the so called ‘Old Testament’) also called the Tanak . 'Moses/the Law’ corresponds to the Torah, ‘The Prophets’ is the part that corresponds to Nevi’im.
Mt 4.4 ‘It is written: Man shall not live on bread alone…’ In the New Testament that phrase ‘it is written’ is mentioned about 31times. Every time you come across that phrase know that there is a passage or scripture in the OT being referred to.
you are right in your own terms
I’ll be honest with you, I have enormous respect for psychology
I hope I am, I deeply resent being deceived